mci screening test PAPER 2002 SOLVED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS for russia medical mbbs students

Q 56. Flat small vegetations in the cusps of both tricuspid and mitral valves are seen in:
A. Viral myocarditis
B. Libmann Sach’s endocarditis
C. Rheumatic carditis
D. Infective endocarditis
Ans. B
Microbiology
Q 57. Bacteria may acquire characteristics by all of the following except:
A. Taking up soluble DNA fragments across their cell wall from other species
B. Incorporating part of host DNA
C. Through bacteriophages
D. Through conjugation
Ans. B
Q 58. Neonatal thymectomy leads to:
A. Decreased size of germinal center
B. Decreased size of paracortical areas
C. Increased antibody production by B cells
D. mcreased bone marrow production of lymphocytes
Ans. B
Q 59. Staphylococcus aureus differs from Staphylococcus epidermidis by:
A. Is coagulase positive
B. Forms white colonies
C. A common cause of UTI
D. Causes endocarditis in drug addicts
Ans. A
Q 60. Positive Shick’s test indicates that person is:
A. Immune to diptheria
B. Hypersensitive to diptheria
C. Susceptible to diptheria
D. Carrier of diptheria
Ans. C
Q 61. In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by:
A. Blood culture
B. Widal
C. Stool culture
D. Urine culture
Ans. B
Q 62. Which of the following is transmitted by rat urine?
A. Leptospira
B. Listeria
C. Legionella
D. Mycoplasma
Ans. A
Q 63. AII the following are true about Listeria except:
A. Transmitted by contaminated milk
B. Gram negative bacteria
C. Causes abortion in pregnancy
D. Causes meningitis in neonates
Ans. B
Q 64. Which of the following statement is true about Bacteroides:
A. It is gram positive bacilli
B. It is strictiy aerobic
C. It may cause peritonitis
D. Presence in stool culture indicates need for treatment
Ans. C
Q 65. Heat stable enterotoxin causing food poisoning is caused by all the following except:
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Yersinia enterocolitica
C. Staphylococcus
D. Clostridium perfringens
Ans. D
Q 66. HIV virus contains:
A. Single stranded DNA
B. Single stranded RNA
C. Double stranded DNA
D. Double stranded RNA
Ans. B
Q 67. Regarding HIV which of the following is not true:
A. It is a DNA retrovirus
B. Contains reverse transcriptase
C. May infect host CD4 cells other than T-lymphocytes
D. Causes a reduction in host CD4 cells at late stage of disease
Ans. A
Q 68. CMV retinitis in HIV occurs when the CD4 counts fall below:
A. 50
B. 100
C. 200
D. 150
Ans. A
Q 69. Epstein Barr virus causes all the following except:
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Measles
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Ans. B
Q 70. In a patient, corneal scraping reveals narrow angled septate hyphae. Which of the following is the likely etiologic agent:
A. Mucor
B. Aspergillus
C. Histoplasma
D. Candida
Ans. B
Q 71. Which of the following is true regarding globi in a patient with lepromatous leprosy:
A. Consists of lipid laden macrophages.
B. Consists of macrophages filled with AFB
C. Consists of neutrophils filled with bacteria
D. Consists of activated lymphocytes
Ans. B
Q 72. The following diagnostic tests are useful for corresponding purposes except:
A. Zeil-Neelson staining – Detection of mycobacteria
B. Immunoflorescence – Detection of influenza virus
C. Specific IgM antibodies – Immunity against rubella
D. Specific IgM antibodies – Detection of acute infection
Ans. C
Q 73. IL-1 produces:
A. T lymphocyte activation
B. Delayed wound healing
C. Increased pain perception
D. Decreased PMN release from bone marrow
Ans. A
Q 74. Microfilaria are seen in peripheral blood in which stage of filariasis:
A. Tropical eosinophilia
B. Early elephantiasis
C. Early adenolymphangitis stage
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 75. Confirmation of diagnosis of rota virus infection is by:
A. Antigen detection in stool by ELISA
B. Antibody titres in serum
C. Antigen detection by immunoflurescence
D. Antigen detection in serum by ELISA
Ans. A
Pharmacology
Q 76. Regarding efficacy and potency of a drug, all are true, except:
A. In a clinical setup, efficacy is more important than potency
B. In the log dose response curve, the height of the curve corresponds with efficacy
C. ED50 of the drug corresponds to efficacy
D. Drugs that produce a similar pharmacological effect can have different levels of efficacy
Ans. D
Q 77. All the following are selective beta blockers, except:
A. Atenolol
B. Esmolol
C. Bisprolol
D. Celiprolol
Ans. D
Q 78. All of the following factors increase the risk of aminoglycoside renal toxicity, except:
A. Elderly person
B. Dehydration
C. Simultaneous use with penicillin
D. Aminoglycoside administration in recent past
Ans. C
Q 79. In which of the following disorders is administration of barbiturates contraindicated in:
A. Anxiety disorders
B. Acute intermittent porphyria
C. Kemincterus
D. Refractive status epilepticus
Ans. B
Q 80. Mechanism of action tianeptin in the brain is:
A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition
B. Selective norepinephfine reuptake inhibition
C. Selective serotonin reuptake enchancer
D. Selective dopamine reuptake inhibition
Ans. C
Q 81. Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when they are given:
A. After meals
B. Shortly before meals
C. Along with H2 blockers
D. During prolonged fasting periods
Ans. B
Q 82. Which of the following is correctly matched:
A. Dimercaprol:Iron
B. Calcium di-sodium EDTA:Arsenic
C. Penicillamine:Copper
D. Desferrioxamine:Lead
Ans. C
Q 83. Digoxin is contraindicated in:
A. Supraventricular tachycardia
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
Ans. D
Q 84. All the following drugs cause renal failure except:
A. Cephaloridine
B. Amphoterecin B
C. Cefoperazone
D. Gentamicin
Ans. C
Q 85. All of the following statements are true regarding losartan except:
A. It is a competitive angiotensin receptor antagonist
B. It has a long acting metabolite
C. Associated with negligible cough
D. Causes hyperuricemia
Q Ans. D